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is acetaminophen in ibuprofen Does the US Constitution not apply to Bradley Manning - i.e. the right to a fair trial, in a reasonable timeframe, without torture etc. (sorry I can't quote it but I know what it says)? After all, his pre-trial treatment has been classified as torture, and it exceeded the length of time that a person should have to wait to be tried. What about the part of the constitution that allows freedom of expression and being able to protect yourself from a corrupt government who are doing illegal acts? Why can't Bradley Manning use the US Constitution as his defense? Does joining the US military mean that the US Constitution no longer applies to him? Just because he signed a contract, surely still, the highest law of the land is the Constitution? I just would like an explanation of how what he did was illegal, when, by applying the US Constitution to his case, then surely what he did was perfectly legal. I don't get how they reconcile the two, if you could explain that I'd much appreciate it. Thanks.
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